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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 14:08

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

I vibrated my dogs shock collar while it was eating my other dog’s food and now it won’t eat. How do I fix this problem?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do heterosexual men like anal sex with women? I think it's because they secretly want to have anal sex with a man? What do you think?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What would Spanish sound like if only latin and Greek words were used, like some romance analogy to anglish?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.